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Biblical Inerrancy: A Discussion
Comments by Frank L. Hoffman - 18 March 2006
Thank you for writing.
We presume you are referring to the discussion in our Discussion Section.
Subjective experience is not necessarily within the will of God, thought I believe John's was, and we need to understand and discern the difference between living in the will of God, and living in the concessions that God had allowed. To better understand what I'm referring to, see:
Concerning the second part of your question, Biblical inerrancy doesn't mean that the translations are inerrant, so there really isn't any conflict. God's original intent is seen in the "original text"; it's the translators who have introduced errors, some of which may have been for political or subjective reasons, particularly as it concerns their culture and tradition.
As I responded previously in this discussion there can be a vast difference between the intent of the Biblical writer and the way the passage is interpreted. As an example, in Genesis 1 and 2, the King James Version says Man was created as a living soul, but that animals were not, for the translator call them living beings or creatures. However, the Hebrew Test calls animals and humans neh-fesh khah-yaw (living souls), which is God's intent. Furthermore, by carefully observing animals, it is not difficult to discern that animals do possess the qualities of soul and spirit. So as far as this example is concerned, this is inerrant.
Another example is elimination of "animals" in the translation of Revelation. The Greek text clearly says that John saw animals in heaven, but the translators have changed the words to "creatures" and "beings". See: Animals in Heaven - A look at Revelation 4:6-9
Is this answering your question, at least in part?
In the Love of the Lord,
Your Comments are Welcome:
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